So you say, but that's neither how people speak nor write English, and I believe doing so or not creates a difference in intonation and makes it sound more direct.One again: Vocatives need always to be offset by punctuation.
Right:
“Mate? Where are you?”
“Mate, where are you?”
“Where, mate, are you?”
“Where are you, mate?”
“Where are you? Mate?”
Wrong:
“Mate where are you?”
“Where mate are you?”
“Where are you mate?”
Bullshit. The use of punctuation to offset vocatives is a basic rule of the English language. (It does not obtain in some other languages in which vocatives have a distinct declension.)So you say, but that's neither how people speak nor write English, and I believe doing so or not creates a difference in intonation and makes it sound more direct.
Saying “It's fine mate.” sounds warm and friendly. “It's fine, mate.” sounds confrontational and sarcastic, which is how people speak and write.
And yet, many people don't write that way and there is a clear difference in meaning in speech between including the pause or not.Bullshit. The use of punctuation to offset vocatives is a basic rule of the English language. (It does not obtain in some other languages in which vocatives have a distinct declension.)
It's not my choice to do so. Wakakusa as a character speaks in rather colloquial, Tokyo street Japanese. This is something Tomiyaki Kagisora chose to do to give the character an identity.Your insistence on using a particular dialect in which people routinely use “innit” and “mate” (even though that dialect doesn't in the least match the setting of the story!) is one thing. This outright error is quite another.
First, one can find as many errors as one wants on the Internet. (For example, it is awash with “definately”.) Second, you are supposed to be translating dialogue, in which mispunctuation isn't even possible. If the story had a note or page from a book that were mispunctuated, then almost certainly the translation should also have mispunctuation. But vocalizations rendered as text are another matter. You could as well and as badly capitalize the wrong letters and insist that, because people miscapitalize on the 'Net, it was fine for you to do so in translating dialogue.And yet, many people don't write that way and there is a clear difference in meaning in speech between including the pause or not.
If I search "It's fine mate.", the overwhelming majority of citations on the internet found do not have the comma.
The marks of punctuation began as signalling the lengths of pauses, but their purposes long ago became much wider in scope. (Consider parentheses; or, perhaps more to the point, the Oxford comma.)there is a clear difference in meaning in speech between including the pause or not.
Oh, yes it is. Finding a corresponding English dialect (if possible) would have been a good choice; you didn't do that.It's not my choice to do so.
In earlier chapters, you mispunctuated every instance of any vocative. In this chapter, you did better. But you still dropped the ball with “mate”. Your choices aren't driven by careful consideration ex ante.I used to criticize translations on minor grammatical inaccuracies until I realized, after learning Japanese that the Japanese itself is full of it, purposefully by the original writers to give characters an identity.
No, what obtains when “mate” is used with no thought given to what person it might address is interjectional use, which can occur at the beginning or in the middle of a sentence. Likewise for “man” and more recently for “dude”. But even when a nominal vocative takes-on a interjectional function, the word remains a nominal vocative and is punctuated accordingly.Edit: on the topic of “mate” as a vocative. I think the issue is that in colloquial, spoken English. It's simply no longer a vocative to begin with but a grammaticalized sentence ender that derived from the vocative.
In this case; it's the overwhelming majority that does so, not a minority. When an overwhelming majority uses a spelling, it has become the standard.First, one can find as many errors as one wants on the Internet. (For example, it is awash with “definately”.)
It's very much possible. As I said, this kind of Japanese, as well as in forum posts contains a multitude of unusual punctuation styles that aren't allowed in formal Japanese in newspapers or Wikipedia.Second, you are supposed to be translating dialogue, in which mispunctuation isn't even possible.
And I would argue that this use of “mate” is not a vocative, but a modal particle grammatical from the former use, which is why most people do not put a comma here and I would also argue that to most people a comma or not changes the meaning from a modal particle to a vocative, and thus the tone of the sentence.The marks of punctuation began as signalling the lengths of pauses, but their purposes long ago became much wider in scope. (Consider parentheses.)
How is not corresponding?Oh, yes it is. Finding a corresponding English dialect (if possible) would have been a good choice; you didn't do that.
Again, they aren't following textbook Japanese grammar rules either.In earlier chapters, you mispunctuated every instance of any vocative. In this chapter, you did better. But you still dropped the ball with “mate”. Your choices aren't driven by careful consideration ex ante.
No, it's a modal particle, not an interjection. An interjection by definition can stand on it's own, dislocated from any sentence. This use of “mate”, and indeed “man” always follows a sentence and lends it a different modality.No, what obtains when “mate” is used with no thought given to what person it might address is interjectional use, which can occur at the beginning or in the middle of a sentence. Likewise for “man” and more recently for “dude”. But even when a nominal vocative takes-on a interjectional function, the word remains a nominal vocative and is punctuated accordingly.
No, fortunately it doesn't. If simple majoritarianism determined standard English, then a great deal would become impossible or nearly impossible to express. Determination of the standard is, in practice, heavily weighted in favor of people with particular competences.When an overwhelming majority uses a spelling, it has become the standard.
No, it's not. Speech is a sequence of sounds. Punctuation are marks of writing that indicate or limit relationshios amongst words. Now-a-days, a full colon generally has no effect on how a sentence is sounded. People cannot hear the differences amongst dashes semi-colons, elipses, parentheses, or commas. A person who writes a list with an Oxford comma will sound it out just the same as would a person who does not use an Oxford comma.It's very much possible.
So now you've changed you theory from “mate” marking the end of a sentence to its having an unspecified modal effect. In any case, no, the comma is certainly not going to change how most people will interpret it, in-so-far as most Anglophones do not speak a dialect in which “mate” has a modal effect. For most Anglophones, “mate” is a simple, neutral vocative associate with Australians.And I would argue that this use of “mate” is not a vocative, but a modal particle grammatical from the former use, which is why most people do not put a comma here and I would also argue that to most people a comma or not changes the meaning from a modal particle to a vocative, and thus the tone of the sentence.
Nope. In discussion in an earlier chapter, you asserted that “lad” was a term used to indicate lower status. It's not in London. Many young men in London are happy to call themselves and to be called “lad”. So, whatever this dialect may be, it's not Londoner.I have rendered that as a street version spoken in the capital and most populous city of England.
Again, you're pretending that introducing mispunctuation of spoken English is somehow fidelity to non-standard Japanese. It's not. You just didn't understand a rule of English punctuation, managed a partial correction after your mistake was first noted, but have been trying to rationalize ex post the remaining continuation of the error.Again, they aren't following textbook Japanese grammar rules either.
Asserting this unspecified modality to be an “undeniable truth” is actively silly.the undeniable truth is that it has grammaticalized to a modal particle in colloquial English
Humor me and anyone else following by actually specifying this supposed modality, presenting evidence for it, and perhaps explaining why you only just now began describing “mate” as having modal effect.No, it's a modal particle, not an interjection
And that would of course be you. Everyone else is wrong and you are right.No, fortunately it doesn't. If simple majoritarianism determined standard English, then a great deal would become impossible or nearly impossible to express. Determination of the standard is, in practice, heavily weighted in favor of people with particular competences.
And you will find that in writing people make this distinction. As I said, the majority of instances of “It's fine mate.” do not include the comma.No, it's not. Speech is a sequence of sounds. Punctuation are marks of writing that indicate or limit relationshios amongst words. Now-a-days, a full colon generally has no effect on how a sentence is sounded. People cannot hear the differences amongst dashes semi-colons, elipses, parentheses, or commas. A person who writes a list with an Oxford comma will sound it out just the same as would a person who does not use an Oxford comma.
I strongly disagree with that. You seem to be an odd one here as evidenced by the fact that the majority of written texts do not include the comma, which they do with “It's fine, John.”.So now you've changed you theory from “mate” marking the end of a sentence to its having an unspecified modal effect. In any case, no, the comma is certainly not going to change how most people will interpret it, in-so-far as most Anglophones do not speak a dialect in which “mate” has a modal effect. For most Anglophones, “mate” is a simple, neutral vocative associate with Australians.
Try calling your boss or your teacher “lad” and see how that goes in London.Nope. In discussion in an earlier chapter, you asserted that “lad” was a term used to indicate lower status. It's not in London. Many young men in London are happy to call themselves and to be called “lad”. So, whatever this dialect may be, it's not Londoner.
The evidence I gave is that the majority of citations of it's use do not include the comma. Apparently you do not consider how the majority uses something as evidence for how the majority perceives it.Humor me and anyone else following by actually specifying this supposed modality, presenting evidence for it, and perhaps explaining why you only just now began describing “mate” as having modal effect.
Nope. I've had a discernible but only trivial effect on the standard.And that would of course be you.
In Londoner dialect, “lad” captures a sense of youthful masculinity. Because of this actual association, products such as the Yorkie (a candy bar) are marketed as “for lads”, something that would not work nor even be tried if “lad” carried with it any sense of inferiority. Similarly, no product is marketed to a final customer as “for subordinates”, “for servants”, “for serfs”, or “for slaves”. (The strong association with masculinity makes your use of it for feminized persons especially absurd if you're trying for Londoner dialect).It is very much a form of address used by those of higher status to those of lower status, that those of lower status are fine with being referred to as such is common in m
any cultures, including in Japanese culture.
Now let's get to the principal point: Even though you have been directly and explicitly asked, you do not specify this supposed modality. You're grabbing at the frequency of a mere punctuation error as evidence for a modality, and so cannot say what that modality were.And you will find that in writing people make this distinction.