Group Leader
- Joined
- Apr 28, 2018
- Messages
- 941
Your point was based on complete ignorance of history.Yet, my point wasn't based on theory but history. guess who first mention this theory as a proof against my argument.
Not all slaves have the same legal status even when during the same time and place, because different types of slaves existed based on different circumstances. According to the Code of Hammurabi, debt slaves only worked for three years, as opposed to other slaves, and even with regards to debt slaves, they have different legal status depending on their relationship to the person who sold them. Of course, this is all too complicated for your simple brain to comprehend.His legal status is the same of that of other slaves which is dependent on time and place for its definition. Was that hard to understand?
Hey moron, when the vast majority of the people were living in extreme poverty, how many classes do you think there were that would be considered better than those who sold themselves into slavery to the upper class in order to live a life that is significantly better due to having access to better food, clothing, and shelter? I know what I read. How are you this ignorant about Forbes?I said compered to other classes, read harder next time. And WTF is that link.
LMAO what power do you even think you actually have? You're not some main character with any sort of power that you can imagine. You can't even answer my question: How do you enforce any of your "human rights" without the government?the government can enforce these rights because it has the power to do so, it follows anyone who has enough power can enforce some of his rights. the slave doesn't have any power so he can't enforce anything given to him which was my point that went over your head.
Are you seriously this retarded to think that all governments are democracies? Not all governments are formed by the people, and not every citizen partakes in the government. While it is true that the government cannot sustain itself without citizens from whom they derive their income via taxation, the opposite is not true at all as humans have existed for the vast majority of human history without any form of systematic government. Furthermore, this hypothetical is logically useless because you are simply arguing from personal incredulity, where just because you are incapable of understanding why governments do not always create laws that are directly beneficial to those in power, it means they would never create any laws that do not benefit them directly.the government and the people are not different entity. since the first is formed by the second and the latter partake in the first. The first cannot sustain itself without the second and the opposite is true.
so, you are asking what would the people who partake in the government
benefit from giving rights to themselves? tough question.
all of this is unrelated since it was an imaginary scenario that was made to prove the inability of any slave voluntary or not to enforce his rights if given any.
You have no idea that I have actually answered your question already. When I spoke of a position of privilege where you don't have to literally struggle for survival and where resources are scarce or very difficult to come by, that should already tell you that the reason why anyone would want to voluntarily sell themselves into slavery is to have a better chance at survival or to have access to better resources because these things would have been provided to them by their master. When somebody is in extreme poverty, and resources are scarce, they have an opportunity to have a better life as a slave to a rich man than having to starve to death out in the streets.and you clearly did not answer the question.
Ah, I left out the words 'is obvious' in my previous reply. Here's the sentence again in full:huh???what?
I guess you agree but that's a weird way to say 'I'm sorry and you are correct'.
It is obvious your conditions are clearly having a negative effect on your intelligence if you were not already born retarded.
That is begging the question. A person is a moral agent as long as they have sufficient intelligence. That is literally the only criterion. It literally does not matter if he is under the law or something else that restricts his options. That's like saying that people who are bound by the law i.e. the citizens cannot be moral agents because they are not allowed to go against the rules imposed upon them by the state.Ok one more time, if the slave can act for his own benefit and is free to do as he wishes he can then be a moral agent, but since the slave by definition cannot do this, he is therefore not a moral agent.
Has it really never occurred to you that slaves can actually have a significantly better life than someone who is labouring away at other jobs? Or is your idea of slavery just people in a comically perpetual state of being half-dressed and in chains and being forced to do hard labour? And no, being miserable in life doesn't affect one's intelligence. Don't be stupid. You can't blame your miserable environment for how stupid you are either.and again, being a slave dose diminish a person intelligence and well-being since it's a miserable life, you either say no it doesn't or say being miserable in life doesn't affect your intelligence, now which one is it?
Indeed.see, point proven.