@TheAmokz Better than a fellow contemporary, sure, but why would it make you better than slave owning Native American, African, Arab, ancient Roman, Egyptian, and all the various other times and places where slavery was practiced prior to the development of the idea of the sanctity/sovereignty of the individual? (really would like to know)
Ya it's a philosophical development, not a technological innovation, but both still require the effort of people to develop. The idea that I shouldn't just kill you and take your stuff. That all free men should have a vote(~1830), and then that women should as well (~1920). These sort of ideas had to develop from just the simple idea that might makes right. People had to develop the philosophical and moral underpinnings to instantiate them. Just as if you were born in ancient Rome you wouldn't be able to make a cogent argument against slavery, let alone see anything wrong with slavery. You'd also be unable to develop Calculus or a steam engine for similar reasons. The base thought/idea needed hadn't been developed yet.
As far as slavery being outlawed elsewhere prior to the west, I'm only familiar with China outlawing slavery. And they only did so because it wasn't cost effective for the state to enforce slavery, not for any moral/ethical reason.
Ok I hopped on over to
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Timeline_of_abolition_of_slavery_and_serfdom
It's really not until the 16th century that you see the idea against the slavery (and serfdom, which is a slave that comes with the land) (of ANY/ALL persons) start to pop up, and it's in the west. China never really got rid of all slavery. If you notice Japan on the list 1590, it was only the slavery of Japanese persons. And then it wasn't until 1872 that debt slavery/indentured servitude was outlawed.