One thing I am confused about though. You seem to accept the fact that a "reverse harem" is generally one woman in a romantic relationship with a group of men. Why do you have a problem with the opposite being true? Also, in the case of manga and other literature, harem is not defined in such a firm manner. It's generally used when there is even a hit of romance between a male character and several females, often in stories where perhaps the only requited love is between the male and a single female, and other side characters express interest, but is not considered a true romantic partner. It does not necessarily mean the MC will be banging multiple women at the same time, just the implication that they possibly could.
Because my problem is exactly that. A lot of so called harem manga are not about one male in a "
romantic" relationship with multiple females. Therefore: "You seem to accept the fact that a "reverse harem" is generally one woman in a romantic relationship with a group of men. Why do you have a problem with the opposite being true?" becomes an invalid statement.
Additionally a "romantic relationship" isn't simply "I'm interested" (or, worse, "potentially interested") but actually actively
in a relationship. One could actually argue that a male being in multiple romantic relationships with multiple females who don't actually know about one another is
still a harem. I would be "ok" with this argument for the most part, but would prefer A: the relationship between known amongst all participants, and B: it be a physical relationship. However neither of these are specifically required (a romantic relationship that "will
become physical" is still one that is "not physical").
Really, my problem is with everything after "Why do you have a problem with the opposite being true?" and it's because the relationship between the male and females isn't romantic, but one of friends (at best, or of family as another person commented). If it's a group of "friends" then the
classification of "harem" loses all meaning because it then contains literally any group that contains "at least" one male and "at least" more than one female. Effectively a group of two married couples going on a double date (or simply "hanging out") would fall under this category.
Finally, I wasn't trying to be offensive nor combative, the sole reason that I called your source into question is merely because you didn't cite something that should be fairly easy to cite (i.e. a link to the website, etc) which is often done by people who are simply stringing together a group of words that "appear to" prove their point, but if it can't be verified be a third party is effectively meaningless. I didn't want to just accuse you of doing this (that would be unfair) so I requested the source.
Since we are on the topic, ... Well, I was about to link Oxford's own page on the word, but it requires a subscription, which I have no need for and see no reason for you (nor anyone else reading this, for that matter) to pay for for the purpose of this argument. At the top of the Google function of "define [word]" they claim it's from the Oxford Dictionary. I will have to follow that assumption unless someone who has a subscription can screenshot it to prove this incorrect.
EDIT: Ok, I found a way around requiring a subscription.
Oxford "Learner's Dictionaries" doesn't, but is still Oxford's Dictionary. Additionally
Collins Dictionary includes both the American meaning and the British meaning.
The Cambridge Dictionary.
Dictionary.com provides the same information you did. And
Merriam-Webster Dictionary includes "a group of women 'associated' with one man." One might ask why I looked it up with various different dictionaries (other than for the 'flat' comparison) and that's because there is a notable difference between "American" English and "British" English (Also called "Common Wealth" English). Again, why is this important? Two reasons:
distribution (which, and how many countries, use which), and the second one I can find literally no documented reference to, but based upon the timestamps from the forums (among other circumstantial evidence) it is most likely that it originates from Europe (i.e. British English). I spent somewhere in the upper tens of minutes trying to find an official statement to confirm this (I know there are servers in the US, but the origin appears to be Europe), but I could not. I could easily be wrong, but the time stamps strictly do not even remotely match the US (Eastern, Central, Mountain or Pacific - Or Alaska/Hawaii). I'm in Central and it's literally multiple hours difference for me. Additionally, and I had to look this up, while some countries automatically use the 24-hour ("military") time format, the UK doesn't "automatically" do so, nor (like some countries) do they use the "year/month/day" format. The reason I looked this up is because
if they did and either this website did not; or if they did not, and this website did, it would irrefutably prove me wrong (which, I would be ok with). Also, in the event anyone is actually still reading this, if anyone knows how to change the timezone for timestamps on Mangadex (forums), please, for my sanity, tell me...
So, the entire reason I even brought this up is because your first reply states: "American English" before providing the definition. That's all well and good, except most countries that speak English
don't use "American" English (see "distribution" above). All of the dictionaries I used had the origin of the word: "the separate part of [...] house where the women live." All of the dictionaries had some equivalent of "women or wives [...] man" or the non-human animal equivalent of that statement. Only Merriam-Webster, Dictionary.com and Collens (which was specifically under "American" English) mentioned multiple women and one man without either explicitly citing the first definition or those women being romantically tied to that man. And, again, that's my point: one male with multiple females tied to him romantically == harem (or the part of a building housing women), anything else isn't a harem.